Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
09.06.2025 17:41
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Why is social media so anti-fee speech, and have they become total BS?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.